Planning & Scoping
36 free practice questions with explanations
PassNova has 36 free CompTIA PenTest+ practice questions on Planning & Scoping, each with a clear explanation. Practise them in the browser with instant feedback — 100% free, no sign-up, on any device. Updated for 2026.
Planning & Scoping: example questions & answers
Here are 6 example questions from this topic. Practise the full set of 36 free in the browser.
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During the pre-engagement phase, what is the PRIMARY purpose of the Rules of Engagement (RoE) document?
- A To list every vulnerability that will be exploited
- B To define the scope, constraints, timing, and authorised activities of the test ✓
- C To provide the final report template to the client
- D To calculate the total cost of the engagement
Answer: The Rules of Engagement formally define what testers may and may not do, including scope boundaries, timing windows, permitted techniques, and emergency contacts, protecting both parties legally and operationally.
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A client wants assurance that a penetration test will not be confused with a real attack and that testers are legally protected. Which document grants explicit legal permission to perform the test?
- A Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)
- B Authorization / 'get out of jail free' letter ✓
- C Master Service Agreement (MSA)
- D Statement of Work (SOW)
Answer: A signed authorization letter (often called a 'get out of jail free' card) provides written proof that the testing activity is authorised by the asset owner, which is essential to avoid violating computer misuse laws.
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Which assessment type provides the tester with NO prior knowledge of the target environment, simulating an external attacker?
- A Crystal-box testing
- B White-box testing
- C Grey-box testing
- D Black-box testing ✓
Answer: Black-box testing gives the tester no internal knowledge such as source code, credentials, or network diagrams, closely simulating an outside attacker who must discover everything through reconnaissance.
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When scoping an engagement that includes systems hosted on a third-party cloud provider, what MUST the tester verify before testing begins?
- A The provider's stock price
- B Whether the cloud provider permits penetration testing and any required authorization ✓
- C The age of the data centre hardware
- D The provider's marketing materials
Answer: Cloud providers have their own terms governing security testing; testing assets you do not own without provider permission can breach the provider's acceptable use policy and laws, so authorization must be confirmed first.
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A penetration testing contract specifies that only the 10.0.50.0/24 subnet may be tested. During scanning the tester finds an interesting host at 10.0.60.5. What is the correct action?
- A Exploit it immediately since it is on the same network
- B Stay within scope and do not test 10.0.60.5 unless the scope is formally amended ✓
- C Quietly add it to the report as compromised
- D Scan it but do not exploit it
Answer: Testers must remain strictly within the authorised scope; any expansion requires formal written approval, because testing out-of-scope hosts is unauthorised access regardless of network proximity.
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Which factor is MOST important when determining the appropriate timing window for an on-site network penetration test?
- A The tester's personal preference
- B Avoiding business-critical periods to minimise operational disruption ✓
- C The colour scheme of the client's office
- D The number of social media followers the client has
Answer: Scheduling should account for the client's business operations so that potentially disruptive testing avoids peak or critical processing windows, reducing the risk of unacceptable downtime.